In most translations (including this one, at one time), the latter half of this verse sounds like it’s talking about Jesus being involved in creation:
“And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.” –Berean Standard Bible
However, the Aramaic could be taken in one of two ways. It could agree with what is said above, but it could also simply be about everything being in Jesus’ hand, or power. Literally, the Aramaic reads:
...and-one lord, Jesus Anointed-One, all-of in/with-his-hand/arm also we in/with-his-hand/arm.
We translate this as:
There’s also just one Lord, Jesus the Anointed; everything is in his hand, and we are in his hand too.
The confusion arises because the Aramaic for ‘in’ can also mean ‘with’ or ‘by means of’, and the expression ‘hand/arm’ is part of a common way of talking about acting, fighting, and so on. Consider how many times Yahweh talks about showing his ‘mighty arm’ in the Old Testament.
So the Aramaic text could mean:
- ‘all [is] by means of his hand’, or
- ‘all [are] in his hand’.
Or, in other words:
- Everything was created by/through Jesus, or
- Everything is in Jesus’ hand.
Which is correct?
Well, the ancient Greek translator (remember, our project assumes that this book was originally in Aramaic) seems to quite clearly believe that it should mean ‘all [is] by means of his hand’. He clearly translated it as ‘through whom all’. Modern Bibles translate this to mean that everything was created by God through Jesus.
However, could the Greek translator have made a mistake here? Was it really just a statement about everything being in Jesus’ dominion? Well, if the Greek text really was just an uninspired translation, then yes, it’s possible that a mistake was made.
So is there any further context to clarify what was meant?
Well, the idea of everything being in Jesus’ hand nicely fits many other scriptures, including ones further on in the same letter. Paul later talks about ‘everything’ being acceptable because ‘everything’ belongs to the Lord.
1 Corinthians 10:22-26:
Yes, everything is legal, but not everything makes us stronger... you can eat whatever’s sold at the meat markets without it bothering your consciences, for the earth and everything in it belongs to the Lord.
It also agrees with many other statements, such as Hebrews 2:8, which says:
...when [God] put everything under [Jesus’ feet], He didn’t leave anything out... There’s nothing that he isn’t in charge of.
However, this does not prove anything. It just shows that the alternative translation could be correct.
So, does this verse talk about everything being in Jesus’ hand, or everything being created through Jesus? Well, we can’t ask the Church Fathers for help, since if the Greek translator really did get it wrong, then all these other men would have been working from the mistranslation!
We really can’t say which version is the correct one without stepping outside of translation and into theology. We are not taking sides on any controversy over Jesus’ pre-human existence. The question we’re considering here is one of translation of a few words.
If the Aramaic text really is the original, then it’s our duty to point out that it can be translated in two different ways. We are merely using the alternative translation to bring your attention to this issue; that’s all.